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sTv 2026-06-13 16:57:03 Polymarket

For the "US x Iran permanent peace deal" market: If the US and Iran sign a Memorandum of Understanding that includes language such as "permanent cessation of hostilities" or "permanent end of military conflict", but also establishes a 60-day negotiation period toward a final agreement on sanctions and nuclear issues, would such an agreement qualify as a permanent peace deal under the market rules? I'm not asking for a resolution prediction, only how the rule would generally be interpreted if both elements are present in the same signed document.

For the "US x Iran permanent peace deal" market: If the US and Iran sign a Memorandum of Understanding that includes language such as "permanent cessation of hostilities" or "permanent end of military conflict", but also establishes a 60-day negotiation period toward a final agreement on sanctions and nuclear issues, would such an agreement qualify as a permanent peace deal under the market rules? I'm not asking for a resolution prediction, only how the rule would generally be interpreted if both elements are present in the same signed document.

sTv 2026-06-13 16:50:45 Polymarket

For the "US x Iran permanent peace deal" market: If the US and Iran sign a Memorandum of Understanding that includes language such as "permanent cessation of hostilities" or "permanent end of military conflict", but also establishes a 60-day negotiation period toward a final agreement on sanctions and nuclear issues, would such an agreement qualify as a permanent peace deal under the market rules? I'm not asking for a resolution prediction, only how the rule would generally be interpreted if both elements are present in the same signed document.

For the "US x Iran permanent peace deal" market: If the US and Iran sign a Memorandum of Understanding that includes language such as "permanent cessation of hostilities" or "permanent end of military conflict", but also establishes a 60-day negotiation period toward a final agreement on sanctions and nuclear issues, would such an agreement qualify as a permanent peace deal under the market rules? I'm not asking for a resolution prediction, only how the rule would generally be interpreted if both elements are present in the same signed document.