聊天记录
共 2 条,显示第 1-2 条
For the "US x Iran permanent peace deal" market:
If the US and Iran sign a Memorandum of Understanding that includes language such as "permanent cessation of hostilities" or "permanent end of military conflict", but also establishes a 60-day negotiation period toward a final agreement on sanctions and nuclear issues, would such an agreement qualify as a permanent peace deal under the market rules?
I'm not asking for a resolution prediction, only how the rule would generally be interpreted if both elements are present in the same signed document.
For the "US x Iran permanent peace deal" market:
If the US and Iran sign a Memorandum of Understanding that includes language such as "permanent cessation of hostilities" or "permanent end of military conflict", but also establishes a 60-day negotiation period toward a final agreement on sanctions and nuclear issues, would such an agreement qualify as a permanent peace deal under the market rules?
I'm not asking for a resolution prediction, only how the rule would generally be interpreted if both elements are present in the same signed document.
For the "US x Iran permanent peace deal" market:
If the US and Iran sign a Memorandum of Understanding that includes language such as "permanent cessation of hostilities" or "permanent end of military conflict", but also establishes a 60-day negotiation period toward a final agreement on sanctions and nuclear issues, would such an agreement qualify as a permanent peace deal under the market rules?
I'm not asking for a resolution prediction, only how the rule would generally be interpreted if both elements are present in the same signed document.
For the "US x Iran permanent peace deal" market:
If the US and Iran sign a Memorandum of Understanding that includes language such as "permanent cessation of hostilities" or "permanent end of military conflict", but also establishes a 60-day negotiation period toward a final agreement on sanctions and nuclear issues, would such an agreement qualify as a permanent peace deal under the market rules?
I'm not asking for a resolution prediction, only how the rule would generally be interpreted if both elements are present in the same signed document.